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2018 ACS CCP Exam – 150 Sample Questions

By marcellaPosted on

2018 ACS CCP Exam – 150 Sample Questions

July 19 – I have corrected the answers to questions 28, 86, 98, 103 and 169 – also there is no question 106.

In one week, you’ll be finished with this exam after a grueling six months of studying. If you need one more round of questions before the final week, here are 150 questions from every domain. (Again, wordpress and word don’t much like each other – I hoped I caught all the errors…)

Sample Question 1.) Which word best describes the texture of friable cheese?

  1. Crumbly
  2. Soft
  3. Pliable
  4. Wet

Sample Question 2.) The moist reddish bacteria smear that helps ripen washed rind cheeses is:

  1. Penicillium candidum
  2. Brevibacterium linens
  3. Brine
  4. Lactobacullus helveticus

Sample Question 3.) What type of culture grows better in higher Temperatures?

  1. Mesophilic
  2. Thermophilic
  3. Rennet
  4. Starter Culture

Sample Question 4.) The ideal temperature in aging caves, which allows proper aging pace; keeps the rinds from cracking and warm enough for the cheese to mature while preventing spoilage, is:

  1. 40 – 50F
  2. 45 – 55F
  3. 50 – 60F
  4. 55 – 65F

Sample Question 5.) A microbial culture that performs fermentation is called a(n):

  1. Lipase
  2. Pathogen
  3. Adjunct
  4. Starter culture

Sample Question 6.) Which cheese is not an example of a surface-ripened cheese?

  1. Taleggio
  2. Epoisses
  3. Brillat Savarin
  4. Clothbound Cheddar

Sample Question 7.) Which of the following would not be considered a defect?

  1. Discoloration of paste
  2. Bulging or Bloating
  3. Wrinkles on a Geotrichum rind
  4. Uneven interior consistency

Sample Question 8.) Acid flavor in a cheese can be the result of which of the following?

  1. Too much moisture
  2. Too little moisture
  3. Too much rennet
  4. Not enough Calcium Phosphate present

Sample Question 9.) Tyrosine crystals appear in cheese as the result of the breakdown of which of the following?

  1. Fat
  2. Acid
  3. Casein
  4. Lactose

Sample Question 10.) The main flavor contributions in sheep’s milk are?

  1. Short and medium chain fatty acids
  2. Lanolin and smaller fat globules
  3. Diet and Breed type
  4. Lactate and Casein

Sample Question 11.) What does the lingering odor of ammonia on a soft-ripened cheese indicate?

  1. Freshness
  2. Over-ripe
  3. Contaminated with Listeria
  4. Had bleach spilled on it

Sample Question 12.) According to Liz Thorpe’s “The Book of Cheese”, Taleggio PDO would be a Gateway Cheese to:

  1. Tam
  2. Carmody
  3. Red Hawk
  4. Pastorale

Sample Question 13.) Mary Keehn claims the inspiration for Humboldt Fog was:

  1. Coconut Cake
  2. Morbier
  3. A dream
  4. Valencay

Sample Question 14.) Which cheese is made using vegetarian rennet?

  1. Grana Padano DOP
  2. Blue Stilton PDO
  3. Comte AOC
  4. Brie de Meaux AOC

Sample Question 15.) The PDO regulations for Stilton include which of the following:

  1. Made using raw milk
  2. Minimum of 45% milk fat in the dry matter
  3. Vintage Blue Stilton is aged more than 15 weeks
  4. Must be made in the Counties of Leicestershire, Cheshire, Derbyshire and Nottinghamshire

Sample Question 16.) Parrano is a Dutch Gouda made with what additional cultures that contribute to its nutty-sweet flavor profile?

  1. Cheddar
  2. Parmesan
  3. Gruyere
  4. Cantal

Sample Question 17.) The PDO Regulations for Parmigiano Reggiano as of August 2011 include:

  1. The morning milking is to be skimmed and mixed with the previous evening’s milk.
  2. A maximum of 15% of the morning milking may be set aside to make cheese the following day.
  3. In summer, the room temperature in the maturing facility may not be lower than 21°
  4. The milk may be heat treated but not pasteurized.

Sample Question 18.) Meadow Creek Dairy’s Grayson was inspired by a trip to:

  1. France and Switzerland
  2. Italy
  3. Wales and Ireland
  4. Spain

Sample Question 19.) According to Gordon Edgar, Mariano Gonzalez is the man who brought what cheese “back to the United States”?

  1. Clothbound Cheddar
  2. Limburger
  3. Brick
  4. Mozzarella

Sample Question 20.) Comte AOC is made from the milk of which two cow breeds?

  1. Montbeliarde and Jersey
  2. Jersey and French Simmental
  3. French Simmental and Montbeliarde
  4. Holstein and French Simmental

Sample Question 21.) Roquefort AOC is made from the milk of what ruminant?

  1. Lacaune Sheep
  2. Holstein Cow
  3. Manech Sheep
  4. LaMancha Goat

Sample Question 22.) Which cheese was the first to receive the AOC designation in 1925?

  1. Stilton
  2. Comte
  3. Roquefort
  4. Cantal

Sample Question 23.) Which of the following cheeses has the AOP designation?

  1. Appenzeller
  2. Tilsiter
  3. Sbrinz
  4. Raclette Suisse

Sample Question 24.) Upland Cheese’s Pleasant Ridge Reserve is made during which months?

  1. March through October
  2. April through October
  3. May through September
  4. May through October

Sample Question 25.) Upland Cheese’s Rush Creek Reserve is inspired by which European cheese?

  1. Vacherin Mont d’Or
  2. Harbison
  3. Camembert
  4. Valencay

Sample Question 26.) Comte AOC must be aged a minimum of:

  1. 60 days
  2. 90 days
  3. 120 days
  4. 150 days

Sample Question 27.) Meadow Creek Dairy’s Grayson is what style of cheese?

  1. Camembert
  2. Fresh
  3. Washed Rind
  4. Cheddar

Sample Question 28.) Capriole Goat Cheese’s O’Banon has a shelf life of approximately?

  1. 61 days
  2. 25 weeks
  3. 35 days
  4. 10 weeks

Sample Question 29.) Which group of cheeses all have EU Protected Status?

  1. Comte, Taleggio, Manchego, Paski Sir
  2. Comte, Le Gruyere, Quickes Mature Cheddar, Stilton
  3. Grana Padano, Parmigiano Reggiano, Montgomery Cheddar, Campo de Montalban
  4. Manchego, Roncal, Campo de Montalban, Idiazabal

Sample Question 30.) Which cheese board contains cheeses from four different countries?

  1. Flagsheep, O’Banon, Stilton, Manchego
  2. Manceho, Taleggio, Mt. Tam, Humboldt Fog
  3. Beaufort, Comte, LeGruyere, Sbrinz
  4. Taleggio, Montgomery’s Cheddar, Comte, Sbrinz

Sample Question 31.) According to local legend, Marie Harel is credited with co-creating which cheese?

  1. Brie de Meaux
  2. Vacherin Mont d’Or
  3. Camembert
  4. Roquefort

Sample Question 32.) On which day do French cheesemakers begin making Vacherin Mont d’Or?

  1. November 15th
  2. April 15th
  3. September 15th
  4. August 15th

Sample Question 33.) Which cheeses most directly inspired the recipe for Pleasant Ridge Reserve?

  1. Beaufort and Gruyere
  2. Appenzeller and Beaufort
  3. Gruyere and Comte
  4. Comte and Appenzeller

Sample Question 34.) Name the most consumed AOC/PDO status cheese in France:

  1. Brie
  2. Chevre
  3. Roquefort
  4. Comte

Sample Question 35.) The definition of Farmstead cheese is:

  1. Cheese made at the same location (farm) as the source of the herd providing the milk.
  2. Small-batch cheeses made using the milk produced within five miles of the dairy.
  3. Cheese made at a farm dairy with milk produced from different herds.
  4. Traditionally-produced cheeses using unique cultures and recipes.

Sample Question 36.) Which two sheep milk cheeses have AOC-protected status?

  1. Roquefort and Ossau Iraty
  2. Roquefort and P’tit Basque
  3. Ossau Iraty and Pecorino Romano
  4. Brocciu and Brin d-Amour

Sample Question 37.) Which European country has the most PDO-protected status cheeses?

  1. Spain
  2. England
  3. France
  4. Italy

Sample Question 38.) Which cheese is wrapped in grape leaves soaked in pear brandy?

  1. Capriole O’Babon
  2. Banon
  3. Rogue River Blue
  4. Valdeon

Sample Question 39.) Cougar Gold, the cheddar in a can, was created by which US University?

  1. Cornell
  2. Washington State University
  3. Penn State
  4. University of Colorado

Sample Question 40.) Roth’s Grand Cru Surchoix is similar to which EU PDO cheese?

  1. Le Gruyere
  2. Emmental
  3. Abondance
  4. Cantal

Sample Question 41.) Cowgirl Creamery’s Inverness is their version of which European cheese?

  1. Camember de Normandie
  2. Brie de Meauz
  3. Crottin
  4. Marcellin

Sample Question 42.) Georgia’s Sweet Grass Dairy practices “Barn Free” grazing by using what process:

  1. Zero grazing
  2. Continuous grazing
  3. Rotational grazing
  4. Foraging

Sample Question 43.) Jeffs’ Select Gouda is the result of a collaboration between Jeff Jirik and Jeff Wideman. It is made in Wisconsin and aged where?

  1. Cellars at Jasper Hill
  2. Crown Finish Caves
  3. Caves at Fairbault
  4. Murray’s Cheese Caves

Sample Question 44.) Queso Cotija is a Hispanic-style cheese similar to which other cheese?

  1. Feta
  2. Mozzarella
  3. Parmesan
  4. Cottage Cheese

Sample Question 45.) Which best describes the components of milk?

  1. Protein, Water and fat
  2. Sugar and water
  3. Water, fat, protein, sugar, vitamins and minerals
  4. Water and Fat

Sample Question 46.) What is rennet’s role in cheesemaking?

  1. Enhances flavors
  2. Becomes a protective barrier for the rind
  3. Coagulates the milk
  4. Helps retain moisture in cheese

Sample Question 47.) Why did US commercial cheesemakers begin using annatto?

  1. Inconsistent cheese color due to seasons
  2. Added Flavor
  3. Acts as a preservative
  4. Consumer demand

Sample Question 48.) Which animals do not store beta carotene in their fat cells?

  1. Cows and goats
  2. Camels, Cows and Sheep
  3. Goats and Water Buffalo
  4. Goats, Cows and Water Buffalo

Sample 49.) What is the active enzyme in rennet?

  1. Pepsin
  2. Chymosin
  3. Lipase
  4. Calcium chloride

Sample Question 50.) What gives cheese a natural yellow color?

  1. Fat
  2. Beta carotene
  3. Annatto
  4. Starter Enzymes

Sample Question 51.) Milk produced during the summer months has:

  1. Low fat, high protein and minerals
  2. Low fat, protein and minerals
  3. High at, low protein and minerals
  4. High fat, protein and minerals

Sample Question 52.) What is mastitis?

  1. An infection of the udder that results in high fat and casein in the milk
  2. An infection of the udder that results in higher lactose in the milk
  3. An infection of the udder that results in low somatic cell count in milk
  4. An infection of the udder that results in high somatic cell count in milk

Sample Question 53.) What is the inciting organism that causes mastitis in cows?

  1. coli
  2. Salmonella
  3. Streptococcus
  4. Listeria

Sample Question 54.) Early lactation is the only time milk contains:

  1. Skim
  2. Minerals
  3. Colostrum
  4. Lactose

Sample Question 55.) At what temperature should milk be upon arrival at the dairy?

  1. 45F
  2. 47F
  3. 32F
  4. 50F

Sample Question 56.) How long do regulatory agencies require the retention of temperature records on-site?

  1. 30 days
  2. 1 Year
  3. 6 months
  4. 3 months

Sample Question 57.) What type of material should be used for milk-handling equipment?

  1. Paper, multiple use
  2. Smooth, non-absorbent
  3. Wood
  4. Anything that holds liquid is good

Sample Question 58.) Which of the following is prohibited in the milking process?

  1. Milking inside a stable
  2. Applying sanitizing solution to the teats
  3. Wet hand milking
  4. Brushing teats prior to milking

Sample Question 59.) What breed of cow makes up more than 90% of the US dairy herd?

  1. Jersey
  2. Holstein
  3. Brown Swiss
  4. Guernsey

Sample Question 60.) What is the average lactation length of a cow?

  1. 270 days
  2. 305 days
  3. 240 days
  4. 180 days

Sample Question 61.) Which animal generally produces milk with the highest fat content?

  1. Goat
  2. Sheep
  3. Cow
  4. All are about the same.

Sample Question 62.) Which of the following influences milk composition the most?

  1. Water Supply
  2. Grass to grain ratio
  3. Season
  4. Breed

Sample Question 63.) Which animal has the longest lactation period?

  1. Goat
  2. Cow
  3. Yak
  4. Sheep

Sample Question 64.) Some cheesemakers prefer Jersey cows for which reason?

  1. Highest volume production
  2. The golden color of the milk from beta-carotene
  3. Docile temperament and long gestation period
  4. High butterfat content and lower maintenance

Sample Question 65.) A heifer is:

  1. A breed of cattle
  2. Another name for Holstein breed
  3. Female cow that has calved
  4. Female cow that has not calved

Sample Question 66.) Which breed of Goat was developed in the US?

  1. Nubian
  2. Alpine
  3. Saanen
  4. La Mancha

Sample Question 67.) Which breed of goat is preferred for commercial milking?

  1. Alpine
  2. La Mancha
  3. Saanen
  4. Nubian

Sample Question 68.) What is the mating season for ewes?

  1. Spring
  2. May to July
  3. Summer
  4. August to December

Sample Question 69.) Which goat breed is known for its high butterfat content?

  1. Saanen
  2. La Mancha
  3. Nubian
  4. Alpine

Sample Question 70.) Which goat breed has the highest milk yield?

  1. La Mancha
  2. Toggenburg
  3. Nubian
  4. Saanen

Sample Question 71.) Which of the following is not traditionally made with Sheep milk?

  1. Manchego
  2. Raclette
  3. Roquefort
  4. Pecorino Toscano

Sample Question 72.) Which milk freezes best?

  1. Buffalo
  2. Cow
  3. Sheep
  4. Goat

Sample Question 73.) What is the legal limit for somatic cell count for Grade A Milk?

  1. 1,000,000/ ML
  2. 750,000/ ML
  3. 250,000/ ML
  4. 100,000/ ML

Sample 74.) Which breed of sheep provides the milk to produce Roquefort AOC?

  1. East Friesian
  2. Dorset
  3. Chio
  4. Lacaune

Sample Question 75.) Which sheep breed produces the highest milk yield?

  1. Chio
  2. Dorset
  3. Lacaune
  4. East Friesian

Sample Question 76: What is the definition of rumination?

  1. Drinking milk
  2. Eating Cheese
  3. Regurgitation of Food to Make Room in the 4th Stomach for more food
  4. Regurgitation of food to chew again

Sample Question 77: What is the definition of Alpage?

  1. Grazing on hay
  2. Eating silage
  3. Eating grain
  4. Grazing in high alpine pastures

Sample Question 78: What is the main indicator of milk quality?

  1. Aroma
  2. Somatic Cell Count
  3. Temperature
  4. Color

Sample Question 79.) SCC refers to:

  1. Number of cows in a herd
  2. Number of grazing days
  3. Number of white blood cells in milk
  4. Number of calves born to herd

Sample Question 80: Which bacteria grows best under refrigeration?

  1. Thermoduric
  2. Thermophilic
  3. Psychrotrophic
  4. Protozoa

Sample Question 81: Legally how many days can raw milk be held before processing?

  1. 2 days
  2. 3 days
  3. 5 days
  4. 7 days

Sample Question 82: According to the PMO, what is the legal limit for holding raw milk?

  1. 38F
  2. 40F
  3. 42F
  4. 45F

Sample Question 83.) Streptococci is commonly associated with which practice?

  1. Improper sanitation
  2. High occurrences of mastitis
  3. Poor cooling of raw milk
  4. Addition of too much rennet

Sample Question 84.) Which of the following is not a pathogen found in milk?

  1. Salmonella
  2. Brucella
  3. Streptococcus
  4. Yersinia Enterocolitica

Sample Question 85.) Listeria can grow in temperatures as low as?

  1. 26.4F
  2. 28.4F
  3. 37.4F
  4. 41.2F

Sample Question 86.) E. coli is killed at what temperature?

  1. 145F
  2. 155F
  3. 160F
  4. 130F

Sample Question 87.) How is E. coli transmitted?

  1. Grass – hand route
  2. Oral – hand route
  3. Hand – oral route
  4. Fecal – oral route

Sample Question 88.) What are the most common sources for salmonella infection?

  1. Dairy and seafood
  2. Seafood and root veggies
  3. Root veggies and meat
  4. Meat and eggs

Sample Question 89.) E. coli is killed by:

  1. Heating
  2. Sunlight
  3. Cooling
  4. Freezing

Sample Question 90.) How are coliforms killed in milk?

  1. By pasteurization
  2. By thermalization
  3. Addition of salt
  4. Addition of citric acid

Sample Question 91.) Which animal’s milk has the lowest percentage of water?

  1. Cow
  2. Buffalo
  3. Camel
  4. Ewe

Sample Question 92.) An indicator that a cow has mastitis is an SCC greater than?

  1. 50,000
  2. 100,000
  3. 200,000
  4. 300,000

Sample Question 93.) Which does not affect the bacterial contamination of raw milk?

  1. Feed
  2. Animal health
  3. Sugar content
  4. Equipment

Sample Question 94.) The purpose of pasteurization is:

  1. Reduce Vitamin B 12
  2. Creating eyes in Alpine style cheese
  3. Reducing infectious diseases
  4. Reducing the salt content in cheese

Sample Question 95.) Basic temperature requirements for thermalization are?

  1. 145-161F for 30 minutes
  2. 120-130F for 15 seconds
  3. 140-160F for > 30 seconds
  4. 140-150F for 15-30 seconds

Sample Question 96.) Thermophilic cultures can withstand temperatures of:

  1. 102F
  2. 132F
  3. 160F
  4. 165F

Sample Question 97.) Which fermentation compound contributes to the buttery flavor in cheese?

  1. Diacetyl
  2. Lipase
  3. Propionic Bacteria
  4. Anthocyanin

Sample Question 98.) Addition of too much rennet causes which defect?

  1. Bitterness
  2. Slower coagulation
  3. Darker color
  4. Saltiness

Sample Question 99.) Salt doesn’t influence which of the following in the production of cheese?

  1. Moisture control
  2. Color
  3. Preservation
  4. Rind formation

Sample Question 100.) Which cheese is not soaked in brine as part of its aging process?

  1. Cheddar
  2. Gouda
  3. Edam
  4. Havarti

Sample Question 101.) Which type of lipase is used in the production of Pecorino Romano?

  1. Microbial lipases
  2. Calf lipases
  3. Lamb lipases
  4. Kid lipases

Sample Question 102.) Which is not a fresh cheese?

  1. Quark
  2. Cottage Cheese
  3. Brie de Meaux
  4. Neufchatel

Sample Question 103.) Proteins, butterfat and lactose is contained in what?

  1. Curds
  2. Milk solids
  3. Fat globules
  4. Fat in dry matter

Sample Question 104.) What percentage of FDM denotes high fat in cheese?

  1. >50%
  2. >60%
  3. >70%
  4. >80%

Sample Question 105.) How many ounces of cheese (approximately) are needed to make one cup of grated cheese:

  1. 6
  2. 2
  3. 8
  4. 4

Sample Question 107.) Which of the following would create the most diverse cheese plate?

  1. Fresh Mozzarella, Burrata, Comte, Montgomery Cheddar, Rogue River Blue
  2. Chevre, Mont St. Francis, Taleggio, Humboldt Fog, Alp Blossom
  3. Chabichou du Poitou, Stinking Bishop, Comte, Parmigiano Reggiano, Rogue River Blue
  4. Camembert, Montgomery Cheddar, Comte, Quicke’s Smoked Cheddar, Stilton

Sample Question 108.) Which style cheese pairs best with a dessert wine?

  1. Brie
  2. Cheddar
  3. Washed Rind
  4. Blue

Sample Question 109.) When choosing the cheeses to serve on a restaurant setting, what would be your number one priority?

  1. Price point
  2. Purchase date
  3. Ripeness
  4. Chef’s decision

Sample Question 110.) Which cheese would be a good substitute for Epoisses?

  1. Harbison
  2. Munster
  3. Langres
  4. La Tur

Sample Question 111.) Tete de Moine AOP is served using a:

  1. Girolle
  2. Ostehovel
  3. Cheese plane
  4. Brie Knife

Sample Question 112.) Which of the following is the best example of a vertical cheese tasting?

  1. Montgomery Cheddar, Beecher’s Flagship, Fiscalini Clothbound Cheddar, Mont Bleu Bandaged Cheddar
  2. Harbison Batch 307, Harbison Batch 308, Harbison Batch 309
  3. Brie, Cheddar, Alpine-Style cheese, Blue
  4. Caveman Blue, Oregonzola, Crater Lake Blue, Rogue River Blue

Sample Question 113.) A Portland, Oregon chef is creating a local cheese tasting. Which of the following would be considered local?

  1. Jefferson Organic Cheddar, Orange Marmalade, Eola Hills Cab, Pecans
  2. Siltcoos, Marionberry Jam, Willamette Valley Brut, Filberts
  3. Beecher’s Flagship, Key Lime Jelly, Hazelnuts, Ste. Michelle Sauvignon Blanc
  4. Freya’s Wheel, Sourwood Honey, Pistachios, Rogue Valley Chenin Blanc

Sample Question 114.) Which of the following is not a common taste quality?

  1. Sour
  2. Salty
  3. Bitter
  4. Musty

Sample Question 115.) What sound should a wheel of Emmentaler make when tapped?

  1. Hollow sound
  2. Ringing sound
  3. Buzzing sound
  4. No sound

Sample Question 116.) Significant swelling, spongy feeling and unwanted holes are likely an indicator of what?

  1. Presence of Listeria
  2. coli contamination
  3. Yeast contamination of curds
  4. Addition of too much starter culture

Sample Question 117.) A soapy flavor in cheese is caused by which of the following?

  1. The decomposition of fat, as lipases release fatty acids
  2. The decomposition of casein, as protease release fatty acids
  3. A low pH
  4. Unclean cheesemaking equipment

Sample Question 118.) Tyrosine crystals appear in cheese as the result of the breakdown of which of the following?

  1. Fat
  2. Acid
  3. Casein
  4. Lactose

Sample Question 119.) The primary government agency that oversees the importation, exportation, production and distribution of cheese is:

  1. USDA
  2. FDA
  3. CDC
  4. Local regulatory agency

Sample Question 120.) The proper procedure for cleaning cutting boards and food contact services is:

  1. Scrape, rinse, wash, sanitize, air dry
  2. Scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, wipe dry with single-use towel
  3. Scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry
  4. Wash, Rinse Sanitize, Wipe dry with single-use towel

Sample Question 121.) Which pathogen is of primary concern for pregnant women when eating raw milk cheese?

  1. Listeria monocytogenes
  2. Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (aka E. coli)
  3. Camplyobacter jejuni
  4. Salmonella Typhi

Sample Question 122.) The first principle of an HACCP plan is:

  1. Establish critical limits.
  2. Conduct a hazard analysis.
  3. Determine the critical control points.
  4. Contact the local regulatory agency for approval.

Sample Question 123.) Which industry does not currently have government-mandated HACCP protocols in place?

  1. Canned food
  2. Meat
  3. Cheese
  4. Juice

Sample Question 124.) At its root, a HACCP plan is:

  1. A management system in which food safety is addressed.
  2. A method of establishing traceability in the event of a recall.
  3. A federally mandated requirement in the cheese industry.
  4. A system of performance audits to manage food safety.

Sample Question 125.) GMP is an acronym for:

  1. Government Manufacturing Practices
  2. Good Manufacturing Procedures
  3. Government Manufacturing Practices
  4. Good Manufacturing Practices

Sample Question 126.) Which is not one of the seven key principles of a HACCP plan?

  1. Development of a hazard analysis of a food facility
  2. Identification of critical control points in the process
  3. Identification of corrective action needed to control pathogens.
  4. Develop a flow diagram to facilitate proper procedures

Sample Question 127.) A European wants 200g of Comte. How many ounces is that?

  1. 5 ounces
  2. 7 ounces
  3. 8 ounces
  4. 9 ounces

Sample Question 128.) If a cheese retails for $20.00 per pound and the retailer works on a 50% margin, what did the retailer pay for it?

  1. $10 per pound
  2. $10.50 per pond
  3. $11.50 per pound
  4. $12.50 per pound

Sample Question 129.) Convert 1 pound to grams.

  1. 444 grams
  2. 436 grams
  3. 453 grams
  4. 432 grams

Sample Question 130.) Convert 28 grams to ounces.

  1. 1 ounce
  2. 25 ounces
  3. 35 ounces
  4. 5 ounces

Sample Question 131.) What is the average weight of a traditional English Cheddar truckle in Kilograms?

  1. 18 kg
  2. 21 kg
  3. 25 kg
  4. 28 kg

Sample Question 132.) Which cheese has the highest fat content as a percentage of the dry matter?

  1. Chevre
  2. Cheddar
  3. Parmigiano Reggiano
  4. Blue Cheese

Sample Question 133.) Which 28g serving of cheese is likely to be the lowest in calories?

  1. Mozzarella
  2. Emmental
  3. Parmigiano Reggiano
  4. Farmhouse Cheddar

Sample Question 134.) Which cheese contains the highest amount of Vitamin K2?

  1. Cottage Cheese
  2. Gouda
  3. Mozzarella
  4. Cheddar

Sample Question 135.) Most lipids found in cheese are:

  1. Diglycerides
  2. Triglycerides
  3. Fatty acids
  4. Phospholipids

Sample Question 136.) Cheese inventory rotation is usually referred to by what acronym?

  1. DEMO
  2. FIFO
  3. FOB
  4. ALIFO

Sample Question 137.) What is the preferred cheese wrapping for soft-ripening cheeses?

  1. Wrapping that allows the cheese to breathe
  2. Packaging that stops the ripening process
  3. A wooden container
  4. Plastic container

Sample Question 138.) Which is the common critical temperature limit for storing perishable foods?

  1. 38F
  2. 35F
  3. 41F
  4. 45F

Sample Question 139.) What is the optimal temperature range to maintain the cold chain while cheese is in transit?

  1. 32-35F
  2. 38-41F
  3. 41-45F
  4. 44-47F

Sample Question 140.) On average, how much cheese should be cut and out for display at any given time?

  1. Average sales of the product for a week
  2. Average sales of the product for a month
  3. Average sales for 3 days
  4. Average sales for 1 day

Sample Question 141.) Which of the following should be done daily in your shop?

  1. Plan promotions
  2. Inventory review
  3. Change displays
  4. Pull and remove any outdated product

Sample Question 142.) You have an excessive amount of product approaching sale by date, which of the following would not be a solution?

  1. Running a manager’s special
  2. Demo until product is sold out
  3. Sample
  4. Return to distributor for credit

Sample Question 143.) Region, style, seasonality and price point are important considerations for:

  1. Ordering a balanced selection of cheeses for your shop
  2. Creating marketing materials for your shop
  3. Hiring cheesemongers for your shop
  4. Choosing the location for your shop

Sample Question 144.) What is SOP?

  1. Standard operating practice
  2. Systems of Procedures
  3. Standard operation procedures
  4. Safe operating practices

Sample Question 145.) Cleaning and sanitation do not involve:

  1. Cleaning and maintenance schedules
  2. How to deal with spills and cleaning agents
  3. Chemicals, chemical use and cleaning agents
  4. Setting and replacing insect pest strips.

Sample Question 146.) facilities should contain the following zones:

  1. Restrooms and break rooms
  2. Refrigerated storage and dry storage
  3. Cheese ripening and aging area
  4. Food handling/Preparation areas and non-food handling areas

Sample Question 147.) Once milk has passed inspections and is in holding tanks, how quickly must it be used?

  1. Within 12 hours
  2. Within 7 days
  3. Within 24 to 72 hours
  4. Within 48 to 72 hours

Sample Question 148.) Principle Yield determination factor in milk is:

  1. Whey
  2. Water
  3. Casein
  4. Minerals

Sample Question 149.) What is done to all pasta filata cheese before molding?

  1. More salt is added
  2. Cream is added
  3. Annatto is added
  4. The cheese is stretched

Sample Question 150.) How often does AWA (Animal Welfare Approval) audit farms?

  1. Once
  2. Yearly
  3. Semi-Annually
  4. Bi-annually

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